At least when I made this thread I was specific about it, and provided an example proof relating x to .999... And 1, which clearly disobeyed algebraic rules, but trolls with troll on. C'mon OP, if you're going to copy this decade old troll, you gotta be better than that. You can be proven wrong very easily, because you did not specify for people to prove you wrong [i]mathematically.[/i] There is a fine distinction between proving something true in mathematics, and proving something true in semantics (linguistics, meaning). Simply put, .999... and 1 are not defined as the same number, .999... is infinitesimally small distance away from 1, however if it were 1, it would be called 1. That is why we call .999..., .999... and we call 1, 1. Mathematically, the equals sign is used to show equivalent value on either side of the equation. There is no possible way to mathematically show a difference in value between the two numbers, therefor you cannot make a mathematical proof to prove this wrong until you consider the numbers and their actual meanings. Also it is not logical to work with infinities, as infinity is a concept and [i]not[/i] a number. Due to this, it shows a flaw in our math system where we cannot possibly mathematically define these two numbers as different, even if they are.

way to copy a post that has been already discussed so original see video because i am too tired to explain it myself

Because it doesn't equal one.

Blatant copy is dumb

Yup. Copied from mmo champ. What a doucher

That's only true if changing the numerical base retains the quality of the value. Try dividing 1 by 3 in a base 3 system, you'll find the endless digits don't occur. It makes a solid integer instead, like so; (left column is base 3, right column is base 10) 1/10 = 0.1 1/3 = 0.333' 0.1*10 = 1 0.333' * 3 = 1 The 0.999' = 1 only is true when the 0.999' actually represents a 1/3rd * 3 And thus the 0.999' = 1 only if it is representing the 1/3*3 If you are referring to the real 0.999' which also exists but is not equal to 1/3rd * 3, then no it does not equal 1. It's existence as 0.999' = 1/3*3 = 1 only occurs as a result of a quirk of the decimal numbering system, which is simply an artificial system used to express the underlying geometry of existence. So in short, there are two 0.999' symbols one which represents the real value 0.999' which does not equal 1. And there is the 0.999' which actually represents 1 but is generated as a numeric symbol for 1/3*3 as a quirk of decimal. This is one reason Pi is so interesting cause it doesn't matter what number base you use it still generates an endless chain of non-repeating digits. But I'm a philosopher not a mathematician, but I can still tell the difference between the symbol 0.999' and the actual number 0.999' which are two different things. Go watch Numberphile they cover various mathematical concepts, they might have a video on it. If I seem a bit discoherent it is cause I recently passed the 24 hours awake point. So I am going to bed, goodnight internet.

Nope, not having this conversation again.

I can't prove you wrong because your statement is true. Thread closed.

It [i]does[/i] equal 1. What's the point of this?