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9/7/2015 12:53:46 AM
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The new testament was not written in the era of the Vatican. The gospels and Paul's letters were written in the first century. The verse in exodus has God calling himself I am and then the verse in Matthew, Jesus calls himself I am.
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Now that I look at it, it never directly says. The first says that he is. Not is God, just is. This could mean a lot of things. I'm talking literally. The second says as of the only begotten, not that God is, but his presence was like him. I'm talking literally. Also, if we can not become gods, what does Revelations 3:21 mean.
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Christians will judge and rule with Christ. http://bible.com/100/1co.6.2.nasb Or do you not know that the saints will judge the world? If the world is judged by you, are you not competent to constitute the smallest law courts?
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Modificato da CybrWyteTygr: 9/7/2015 1:29:08 AMI'm not talking about corinthians. It even says in revelations that Jesus overcame his throne and is sitting with his father's . This was after the 1st coming, so who's throne is he sitting in if he is God, because hasn't he been God this whole time by your interpretation?
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Yes but the Father and son are distinct persons of the Trinity. You have to butcher the scriptures to come to the conclusions you are.
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The thing is, I'm not. I'm taking it literal. If Jesus is God, why did he need to overcome anything to be where he is now? And if he is god, and we get to sit in his throne, won't that make us gods? Mormonism is literally the only religion that explains this, and they aren't even Orthodox. Why would taking a physical path leave traces of his existence, when making extremely large gaps in existence do an even better job?
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He didn't need to overcome anything, he chose to overcame death on our behalf and he allows us to share his throne of judgment.
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And the gaps? And why does it only say we can't become God if we can't become gods
