{{
`${userDetail.user.displayName}${userDetail.user.cachedBungieGlobalDisplayNameCode ? `#${standardizeBungieGlobalCode(userDetail.user.cachedBungieGlobalDisplayNameCode)}` : ""}`}}
{{getUserClans()}}
8/26/2015 10:56:27 AM
1
I was also LMFAO too. I can understand the French wanting to convince people that 40$ rather than $40 should be used. They are upset that in the world scheme of things, they have became irrelevant over 100 years ago.
The ones that argue that the U.S. will go that way are just trying to start an argument.
English
-
Have become* [u]Or[/u] Became*
-
I had become, not I have become. But thank you for playing.
-
Edited by White: 8/27/2015 12:09:07 AMSure thing. But just so you know, that's not how it is. "I've become... a monster" Not "I'd become a monster." It really doesn't make sense that way. If you're using past tense, it becomes redundant if you use past tense words more than once per clause. So in my example, it's either be "I became a monster," or "I have become a monster." Not saying that's what I used as an incorrect example right now, but that's what you did in the comment I first corrected. Edit: Had become is present perfect, have become is present progressive, so neither are wrong if you use them the right way. Your "Have became" is still wrong though because you meant past progressive the moment you said "over 100 years ago" but you instead used past progressive and past perfect simultaneously.
