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11/17/2014 12:16:14 AM
9
One thing I don't get about the English language...
The correct way to spell 4 is f[u]ou[/u]r but for 40 it's f[u]o[/u]rty - why get rid of you?
[spoiler]Is there any etymological explanation for this?[/spoiler]
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>tfw this thread has actual discussion value
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Why are mirrors real if we haven't even explained how magnets work?
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English is a dumb language.
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[spoiler]ME. is Middle English, the language of England between about 1100 and 1500 A.D. AS. is Anglo-Saxon, the language of the Saxon tribes that invaded England in the 5th and 6th centuries - from about 600 A.D. OS. is Old Saxon, the language of the original Saxon tribes of northwest Germany between the Rhine and the Elbe rivers.[/spoiler] forty: ME. forti, fourti, fowerti, from AS. feowertig; akin to OS. fiwartig, fiartig four: ME. four, fower, feower, from AS. feower; akin to OS. fiwar Four and forty were different words starting a long time ago, but were spelled with the same beginning in Old Saxon, Anglo-Saxon and part of Middle English. Somewhere along the way during the Middle English era the simpler spelling of forty took hold and has continued ever since.
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Lazy English you so silly
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There is no clear cut reason, just the bastardisation of several Germanic languages combined with the inconsistent spellings that are pretty common in English.
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3 RepliesJust the way things work out. Why do we say [i]twenty?[/i] What significance does [i]twe[/i] hold to the number two?
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To shorten it.
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I assume it's the same reason why any linguistic shortcuts are taken and why the American dialect exists: ease of use. The word 'for' already exists, so maybe that's why 'four' isn't contracted.
