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2/16/2016 2:41:02 AM
3
Actually he was first slave owner in North America not the United States. Totally different things. He owned himself a couple hundred years before the us existed.
So you're extremely wrong.
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[quote]Actually he was first slave owner in North America not the United States.[/quote] That proves my point even more! Thanks! Also, it was around 1 hundred years. I'll correct my Freudian slip in the title though.
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Edited by Nun: 2/16/2016 2:59:59 AMNo it doesn't as United States not equal to North America. And for your argument to be based on the United States the shit happened over 130+ years before it even recognized. The things that happened between those years is extremely important. You are ignoring a lot of history just to make an incorrect fact.
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He was a part of the colonies that would become the US. So by default, he is of the US. Regardless, why are you arguing so defensively against this?
