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12/11/2014 3:43:19 PM
2
Some separation
Seriously though.
Can anyone give me a compelling reason why individuals in the political sphere are allowed to enact and enforce laws based on religious dogma and force others to follow those laws, even if they aren't religious, yet the state can not do the same to religious institutions?
Popular topic being abortions with Texas being an easy target. They effectively banned abortion by not allowing abortion doctors/clinics in the state unless they got a special note from a local hospital. And none of the local hospitals would give this special note to any abortion doctor. Thus they've nearly banned abortions and completely circumventing SCOTUS and Roe vs Wade and spitting in it's face.
And let's put it on the flip side: People would be -blam!-ing pissed if a Muslim politician forced a bill through that required everyone to fast on Ramadan.
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Will, Texan is now allowing teaching creationism in public schools. This is basically institutionalizing young people in to believing dogmatic garbage. Thus, the state is allow religion on to people. Particularly christian values. This is not a separation of church and state.
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Edited by The Cellar Door: 12/11/2014 3:49:25 PMYou do know it's not just a Christian thing to be against abortion right? I mean to say that yes, while Christians are against it, they (Christians and pro-life advocates) are not mutually exclusive, and some Christians are actually pro-choice. This is a key in differentiating correlation and causation. Correlation =/= causation. I am personally pro-choice, and even though the courts decision may have been influenced by a religious belief, it is not mandated upon one and does not violate the verdicts you mention. And I assume that you mean Christianity, correct me if I'm wrong, it's just the safest to assume in a state like Texas. And that's not profiling, look at the statistics.
