Came here looking for numbers or proof but got nothing. I'm taking college statistics right now and if anything this validates that the process is random. Think of it this way, when you're flipping a coin, you can only get heads or tails. Say you flip heads 3 times in a row. You're thinking "Wow the next one HAS to be tails I'm putting all my bets on tails!". But in all reality, it is still the same 50/50 chance it was the previous 3 times. For it to have an increased chance of being tails, flipping heads would have to affect the probability, but it doesn't; flipping one way has no affect on the next flip because they are two independent events. There was a woman in Australia who had 2 separate children who died in their sleep of natural causes. The court thought she had something to do with it so she was locked up; their reasoning being that it was just too unlikely for that to actually happen. Years later, she was released when people actually realized it isn't as impossible as they thought. Point being, you getting the same strike frequently means nothing in terms of randomness. It's [i]random[/i]; a 1/(how many ever strikes there are) chance each time you get that strike. If there are 8 strikes total you'd have a 1/8 chance [i]each time[/i], since you playing one strike doesn't affect what the next will be.